Mathematicians / folks knowledgeable on the subject - do you think Fermat had an error in his (lost) proof? Or that there exists a solution that perhaps is more straightforward than Wiles's?
My understanding is that Wiles had to use a ton of math (and invent some new math?) that had not yet been invented in Fermat's time.
My personal guess is he figured out later that his proof was broken or limited and never got around to fixing it.
One interesting thing of FLT is Wiles is on record as saying it opened the door (I think. This is from memory) to Langlands Program, a series of mathematical connections
Harder problems of course exist, Riemann Hypothesis et al but FLT still took hundreds of years to solve
its phenomenology porn